In Act I, Scene V, after hearing the ghost's demand for revenge, Hamlet says in advance that he will consciously feign madness while seeking the moment opportune to kill Claudius. Therefore, it is difficult to conclude that he became mad by chance after making such a wish. Hamlet's supposed madness becomes his primary means of interacting with the other characters for most of the play, as well as being a major tool that Shakespeare uses to develop his character. Yet the question remains: Is Hamlet really mad or is he just pretending? The major conflict that seems to obscure the possibility of a clear answer to this question is Hamlet's inability to find certain moral truths as he seeks revenge. Even in his first encounter with the ghost, Hamlet questions the appearances of things around him and worries whether he can trust his perceptions, doubting the authenticity of his father's ghost and his tragic statement. Since he is contemplative to the point of obsession, Hamlet's decision to feign madness will sometimes take him dangerously close to actual madness. Indeed, it could be argued that because of this conflict it is impossible to say with certainty whether Hamlet is truly going mad and, if so, when his pretense becomes reality. Conversely, Hamlet's keen and focused observations lend significant credence to his feigning madness. Most notably, he states: "I am but a fool of the north-northwest: when the wind comes from the south, I know a hawk from a handsaw" (II.ii.361-362). That is, he is only "crazy" when he is oriented in a certain way, but is lucid the rest of the time. Nevertheless, Hamlet's confusion results in an extremely intense and highly suggestive state of mind...... middle of paper ......mlet's desire to obtain Laertes' forgiveness clearly represents an important change in his mental state. Whereas Hamlet was previously self-obsessed and preoccupied with his family, he is now able to think sympathetically of others. He does not go so far as to take responsibility for Polonius' death, but he seems to act from a broader, more human perspective after the shock of Ophelia's death. In conclusion, it is perhaps worth considering ask this question: if a person in a rational state of mind decides to act as if they are crazy, in order to abuse the people around them, whether they love them or hate them, and to give free expression to all his most antisocial thoughts, when he begins to carry out these actions, will it even be possible to say at what point he stops pretending to be crazy and starts actually being crazy?