There are strong arguments for both sides. Was Shakespeare trying to please the Crown or was this his true vision? Pro-antisemiotics argue that if Shakespeare did not have an antisemiotic view, why would he write a play centered on this subject? The rebuttal would lead one to question the intentions behind the piece. Does this play really present Shylock in a negative light or is his action a simple response to the given situation? It is thanks to this question that new productions are allowed to go beyond the anti-semiotic vision and to add new elements which play even more on this question. There is no right answer to Shakespeare's true intentions or opinions, but there are many