In Act I, Scene V, after hearing the ghost's request for revenge, Hamlet says in advance that he will consciously feign madness while seeking the moment opportune to kill Claudius. Therefore, it is difficult to conclude that he became mad by chance after making such a wish. Hamlet's supposed madness becomes not only his way of interacting with other characters throughout most of the play, but also one that develops his character throughout the play. Yet the question remains: Is Hamlet really mad or is he just pretending? The major conflict that seems to obscure the possibility of a clear answer to this question is Hamlet's inability to find certain moral truths as he seeks revenge. Even in his first encounter with the ghost, Hamlet questions the general appearance of things around him and worries about whether or not he can trust his perceptions, his senses, without relying on the appearance of his father and his words. Since he is only too thoughtful, Hamlet's informed choice to pretend to be mad will, from time to time, take him close to actual madness. Indeed, it could be argued that because of this conflict it is impossible to say with certainty whether Hamlet is truly going mad and, if so, when his pretense becomes reality. Conversely, Hamlet's keen and focused observations lend significant credence to his feigning madness; Most notable is that he states: "I am but a fool of the north-northwest: when the wind comes from the south, I know a hawk from a handsaw" (II.ii.361-362 ). That is, he is only "crazy" when he is oriented in a certain way, but is lucid the rest of the time. Nevertheless, Hamlet's state of confusion somehow translates into a state of mind that is indicative of genuine...... middle of paper ......e his half-apology to Laertes and the self-contradiction of his repeated statement that he is only feigning madness, Hamlet's desire to obtain Laertes' forgiveness clearly represents a significant change in his mental state. Whereas Hamlet was previously self-obsessed and preoccupied with his family, he is now able to think sympathetically of others. He does not accept responsibility for Polonius' death, but seems to act more compassionately after the upheaval caused by Ophelia's death. In conclusion, and in light of Hamlet, one should ask the following question: if someone in a rational state of mind chooses to act as if they are truly insane, in order to abuse others, all by giving free rein to speech and thought so that the role appears more complete, could we be quite certain at what point someone stops feigning madness and actually begins to go crazy??